PPM CIO-026 AMPLIFYING GUIDANCE FOR AN INTERIM AUTHORIZATION TO TEST UNDER ARMY RISK MANAGEMENT FRAMEWORK 2.0

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40761-PPM_CIO-026-000-WEB-1.pdf

DEPARTMENT OF THE ARMY
CHIEF INFORMATION OFFICER
107 ARMY PENTAGON
WASHINGTON DC 20310-0107
CS-SEC-RI-026
SAIS-CS (25-1rrrr)
MEMORANDUM FOR SEE DISTRIBUTION
SUBJECT: Amplifying Guidance for an Interim Authorization to Test Under Army Risk
Management Framework 2.0
1. References.
a. AR 25-2 (Army Cybersecurity).
b. DA PAM 25-2-14 (Risk Management Framework for Army Information Technology).
c. DA PAM 25-2-12 (Authorizing Official).
d. NETCOM (RMF 2.0 Implementation Operational Tactics, Techniques, and
Procedures (TTP)).
e. NETCOM (Control Assessor TTP).
2. Purpose. Provide amplifying guidance to references 1a–e on the roles and
responsibilities of an Interim Authorization to Test (IATT) under the Army Risk
Management Framework (RMF) 2.0.
3. Background. The ability to rapidly test and securely deploy capabilities is a critical
component of Army modernization. Within the Army RMF, a System Authorizing Official
(SAO) may permit testing in the form of an IATT after meeting specific cybersecurity
requirements. Reference 1d provides guidance on granting an IATT; however, this
guidance does not address the RMF 2.0 processes (e.g., the role of a Network
Authorizing Official (NAO), the relation to an Authority to Connect (ATC)). Information
System Owners (ISO)/Program Managers (PM)s have experienced challenges and
delays in receiving an IATT due to ambiguity in these process and responsibilities. This
policy provides HQDA guidance to clarify and synchronize the conditions and
responsibilities to grant and maintain an IATT.
4. Policy. Operation of a system under an IATT in an operational environment is for
testing purposes only (i.e., the system will not be used for operational purposes during
the IATT period).
26 April 2024
SAIS-CS (25-1rrrr)
SUBJECT: Amplifying Guidance for an Interim Authorization to Test Under Army Risk
Management Framework 2.0
2
a. IATTs shall be granted only when an operational environment or live data is
required to complete specific test objectives.
b. IATTs shall expire at the completion of testing (shall not exceed 18-months).
c. For full and independent operational testing, an ATO (rather than an IATT) may be
required if operational testing and evaluation is being conducted in the operational
environment or on deployed capabilities.
d. The SAO, in granting an IATT, shall:
(1) Determine which of the ATC Critical Controls (reference 1d) is appropriate.
(2) Make the IATT decision based on a Security Assessment Report from a
Security Controls Assessor (SCA) in accordance with reference 1e. A SCA-Organization
may perform this function. This does not require review by the SCA-Army, U.S. Army
Network Enterprise Technology Command (NETCOM).
(3) Document the IATT decision in eMASS to ensure visibility.
(4) Provide the list of all network services and cybersecurity requirements to the
applicable NAO.
(5) Report IATT plan to the NAO so the NAO can provide guidance.
e. While an IATT does not require an ATC, a Network Authorizing Official may apply
additional conditions for specific DoDIN area of operations, as per 4.d.(5).
5. Effective Date. This memorandum is effective upon signature and remains in effect
until rescinded or superseded.
6. Points of contact.
a. CIO Policy Inbox: usarmy.pentagon.hqda-cio.mbx.policy-inbox@army.mil.
b. SAIS-CS: Mr. Mack Bessemer, (571) 314-3846 or william.g.bessemer.civ@army.mil.
LEONEL T. GARCIGA
Chief Information Officer
SAIS-CS (25-1rrrr)
SUBJECT: Amplifying Guidance for an Interim Authorization to Test Under Army Risk
Management Framework 2.0
3
DISTRIBUTION:
Principal Officials of Headquarters, Department of the Army
Commander
U.S. Army Forces Command
U.S. Army Training and Doctrine Command
U.S. Army Materiel Command
U.S. Army Futures Command
U.S. Army Pacific
U.S. Army Europe and Africa
U.S. Army Central
U.S. Army North
U.S. Army South
U.S. Army Special Operations Command
Military Surface Deployment and Distribution Command
U.S. Army Space and Missile Defense Command/Army Strategic Command
U.S. Army Cyber Command
U.S. Army Medical Command
U.S. Army Intelligence and Security Command
U.S. Army Corps of Engineers
U.S. Army Military District of Washington
U.S. Army Test and Evaluation Command
U.S. Army Human Resources Command
U.S. Army Corrections Command
U.S. Army Recruiting Command
Superintendent, U.S. Military Academy
Commandant, U.S. Army War College
Director, U.S. Army Civilian Human Resources Agency
Executive Director, Military Postal Service Agency
Director, U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Division
Director, Civilian Protection Center of Excellence
Director, U.S. Army Joint Counter-Small Unmanned Aircraft Systems Office
Superintendent, Arlington National Cemetery
Director, U.S. Army Acquisition Support Center
CF:
Principal Cyber Advisor
Director of Enterprise Management
Director, Office of Analytics Integration
Commander, Eighth Army 

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MILPER Number: 24-149 Fiscal Year 2026 (FY26) Lieutenant Colonel (LTC) Army Competitive Category (ACC) Centralized Selection List (CSL) Announcement

1. Changes from CSL25 Process. In CSL26, a Delayed Principal may exist if the Army postpones a CSL26 Principal from taking command in CSL26 to CSL27. This action is no fault of the officer and they will maintain their OML position in CSL27. 

2. This MILPER message will expire NLT 30 April 2025 (one year from publication).

3. Concept. The CSL26 process will occur in four phases. The first phase begins on 20 May 2024 when eligible officers will have the opportunity to OPT-IN to CSL26. Once officers have elected to compete for CSL, the Army will determine the invitation list for BCAP 26 using each officer’s past performance against the total requirements for each branch. The second phase consists of participation at BCAP 26 from 18 October thru 11 November 2024 and encompasses the Job Performance Panel (JPP). The JPP considers officers who are Certified for Command (CFC) and considers the totality of their file to determine the OML. The third phase consists of slating officers against Army requirements. The fourth and final phase is the CSA’s approval of the CSL Slate.

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-149

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MILPER Number: 24-148 Non-Transferable Flag for Security Violations Based on Denial of Security Clearance Eligibility, Revocation of Security Clearance Eligibility, or Failure to Meet Background Investigation Requirements, IAW Army Regulation 600-8-2, Suspension of Favorable P

1.  This message will expire one year after publication.


2.  This MILPER Message applies to the Regular Army (RA) and the U.S. Army Reserve (USAR). The Director, Army National Guard (ARNG), will issue supplementary guidance for ARNG personnel.


3.  The purpose of this message is to provide guidance and procedures in support of the execution of AR 600-8-2 (Suspension of Favorable Personnel Actions (Flag)), Security Flag (E), as it pertains to RA and USAR Soldiers who have a denied or revoked security clearance and Soldiers who have failed to meet background investigation requirements in accordance with (IAW) reference P. The Security Flag is a “non-transferrable” flag.

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-148

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MILPER Number: 24-147 Fiscal Year 2026 (FY26) LTC/GS-14 Equivalent Army Acquisition Corps (AAC) Centralized Selection List (CSL) – Command/Key Billet Board

1.  This MILPER message will expire no later than (NLT) 30 April 2025.


2.  A Headquarters Department of the Army (HQDA) Selection Board will convene 24-28 June 2024 to consider officers and civilians for assignment as part of the Army Acquisition Corps (AAC) Centralized Selection List (CSL) command/key billet designated positions projected for FY26. Eligible officers include Lieutenant Colonels (LTCs) and promotable Majors (MAJs) in the Regular Army, United States Army Reserve (USAR) Active Guard Reserve (AGR) and non-AGR Troop Program Unit (TPU) & Individual Mobilized Augmentee (IMA), and Army National Guard of the United States (ARNGUS) Title 10 AGR officers with dates of rank as noted in paragraph 3. The FY26 CSL process will occur in four phases. The first phase begins on 13 May 2024 when eligible officers will have the opportunity to OPT-IN to the FY 26 CSL via the CSL26 Opt-In Portal, which they can access through their AIM Messages at https://aim.hrc.army.mil/. The second phase for command/key billet selection is the CSL Board. The CSL Board will consider the totality of an officer’s or civilian’s file and determine whether an officer meets the criteria to compete for command/key billet. The results of the CSL Board will generate the invitation list to the third phase - the Acquisition Leader Assessment Program 26 (ALAP 26). The CSL order of merit (OML) will be based on the CSL Board score combined with scored components of ALAP 26. Selection for CSL billets will occur after officers’ complete ALAP 26. Officers found “Not Yet Certified” (NYC) at ALAP 26 will not appear on the FY26 CSL. The fourth and final phase, is the Assistant Secretary of the Army (Acquisition, Logistics & Technology) ASA(ALT)’s approval of the OML and the CSL Slate. The ASA(ALT) remains the final approval authority for the CSL OML.

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-147

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MILPER Number: 24-146 Fiscal Year 2026 (FY26) COL/GS-15 Equivalent Army Acquisition Corps (AAC) Centralized Selection List (CSL) – Command/Key Billet Board

This MILPER message will expire no later than (NLT) 30 April 2025.

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-146

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MILPER Number: 24-145 Fiscal Year 2026 (FY26) Colonel (COL) Army Competitive Category (ACC) Centralized Selection List (CSL) Announcement

This MILPER message will expire NLT 30 April 2025 (one year from publication).

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-145

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S1NET Message Summary - 25 Apr 24

1. UPDATED ADJUTANT GENERAL (AG) SECTION OF DA PAM 600-3 SMARTBOOK, OFFICER TALENT MANAGEMENT, 25 APR 24.  DA Pam 600-3 serves primarily as a professional development guide for all officers to understand the process of talent management (TM). The section for AG Officers (commissioned and warrant) has been updated as of 25 Apr 24 and is posted, with the career progression charts, at the following link on S1NET, and on the Army G-1 website.  https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319506

 

 

2. AC ENLISTED PROMOTION ITEMS.

 

 

     a. HRC JUNIOR ENLISTED PROMOTIONS JOB AID - INTEGRATE - CONFIRM MOVE - VIEW PROM POINTS- AS OF 23 APRIL 2024. This aid provides guidance to Soldiers and HR Professionals as to the process of:  Integration of a Soldier onto the PRR, confirm action taken to move Soldier from PCR to PRR did take place (the move was executed), and view the latest promotion points being used for the NEXT promotion selection month within the Integrated Personnel and Pay System - Army (IPPS-A). https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1318506

 

 

     b. IPPS-A HRC G1/S1 TOUCHPOINT 17 APR 2024, 1200ET, TOPIC: JUNIOR ENLISTED PROMOTIONS. The video for the most recent G1/S1 Touchpoint led by the HRC Promotions Team is available at the following link. In this seminar, the HRC Promotions Team led a Junior Enlisted Promotions session, where they walked-through issues that have been observed with Semi-Centralized promotions, and how to solve them. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1318550

 

 

3. ARMY RESERVE PAY MESSAGE 24-11, USAR PAY BRANCH (UPB) CONTACT INFORMATION. The purpose of this message is to provide updated contact information for submission of transmittal letters (TLs) to the UPB. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1318568

 

 

4. USAR AGR EXCEPTION TO POLICY (ETP) TO APPLY TO ACTIVE DUTY OCS. U.S. Army Reserve Soldiers currently serving in the Active Guard Reserve (AGR) program are now authorized to apply for Regular Army OCS. This is a temporary ETP, good for 12 months from the date signed (4 Apr 2024). Read more at the following link. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1318680

 

 

5. IPPS-A ITEMS.

 

 

     a. IPPS-A RETIREMENT GUIDES. My previous unit distributed these all the time to assist/help personnel with the next process of their Army career, thanks to SSG Walters, Ava (BIG PROPS for making this!). When someone requests information on what they need to do IOT retire we give them the following (see following link). Contributed by CW2 Aaron Leeds.  https://www.milsuite.mil/book/message/1061210

 

 

     b. IPPS-A KNOWN ISSUES, 17 APRIL 2024. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1318746

 

 

6. Recently published Military Personnel (MILPER) messages and Military Pay Messages.  Some messages are posted on S1NET, and some are on the HRC MILPER website.  If the link provided takes you to the HRC MILPER website, you have to log in with your CAC before the link to the MILPER message will work.  

 

 

     a. MILPER MESSAGE 24-144, FISCAL YEAR 2025 (FY25) NONCOMMISSIONED OFFICER LEADERSHIP CENTER OF EXCELLENCE (NCOLCOE) AND THE SERGEANTS MAJOR ACADEMY (SGM-A) FELLOWSHIP PROGRAM COHORT 11, ISSUED: [24 APR 2024]. The FY25 Noncommissioned Officer Leadership Center of Excellence (NCOLCoE) and the Sergeants Major Academy (SGM-A) Fellowship Program Cohort 11 Selection Panel will Convene 14 -18 October 2024 at Fort Bliss, Texas to identify the best qualified list for final selection of Fellows. The deadline for submitting applications is 2 October 2024. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/thread/289015 

 

 

     b. MILPER MESSAGE 24-145, FISCAL YEAR 2026 (FY26) COLONEL (COL) ARMY COMPETITIVE CATEGORY (ACC) CENTRALIZED SELECTION LIST (CSL) ANNOUNCEMENT, ISSUED: [25 APR 2024]. The CSL26 process will occur in four phases. The first phase begins on 20 May 2024 when eligible officers will have the opportunity to OPT-IN to CSL26. Once officers have elected to compete for CSL, they will receive an invitation for CCAP 26. The second phase consists of participation at CCAP 26 from 08 - 20 October 2024 and encompasses the Job Performance Panel (JPP). The JPP considers officers who are Certified for Command (CFC) and considers the totality of their file to determine the OML. The third phase consists of slating officers against Army requirements. The fourth and final phase is the CSA’s approval of the CSL Slate. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319507

 

 

     c. MILPER MESSAGE 24-146, FISCAL YEAR 2026 (FY26) COL/GS-15 EQUIVALENT ARMY ACQUISITION CORPS (AAC) CENTRALIZED SELECTION LIST (CSL) – COMMAND/KEY BILLET BOARD, ISSUED: [25 APR 2024]. A HQDA Selection Board will convene 24-28 June 2024 to consider officers and civilians for assignment as part of the Army Acquisition Corps (AAC) Centralized Selection List (CSL) Command/Key Billet designated positions projected for FY26. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319508

 

 

     d. MILPER MESSAGE 24-147, FISCAL YEAR 2026 (FY26) LTC/GS-14 EQUIVALENT ARMY ACQUISITION CORPS (AAC) CENTRALIZED SELECTION LIST (CSL) – COMMAND/KEY BILLET BOARD, ISSUED: [25 APR 2024]. A HQDA Selection Board will convene 24-28 June 2024 to consider officers and civilians for assignment as part of the Army Acquisition Corps (AAC) Centralized Selection List (CSL) command/key billet designated positions projected for FY26. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319509

 

 

     e. MILPER MESSAGE 24-148, NON-TRANSFERABLE FLAG FOR SECURITY VIOLATIONS BASED ON DENIAL OF SECURITY CLEARANCE ELIGIBILITY, REVOCATION OF SECURITY CLEARANCE ELIGIBILITY, OR FAILURE TO MEET BACKGROUND INVESTIGATION REQUIREMENTS, IAW ARMY REGULATION 600-8-2, SUSPENSION OF FAVORABLE PERSONNEL ACTIONS, ISSUED: [25 APR 2024]. This MILPER Message applies to the Regular Army (RA) and the U.S. Army Reserve (USAR). The Director, Army National Guard (ARNG), will issue supplementary guidance for ARNG personnel. The purpose is to provide guidance and procedures in support of the execution of AR 600-8-2 (Suspension of Favorable Personnel Actions (Flag)), Security Flag (E), as it pertains to RA and USAR Soldiers who have a denied or revoked security clearance and Soldiers who have failed to meet background investigation requirements. The Security Flag is a “non-transferrable” flag. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319510

 

 

     f. MILPER MESSAGE 24-149, FISCAL YEAR 2026 (FY26) LIEUTENANT COLONEL (LTC) ARMY COMPETITIVE CATEGORY (ACC) CENTRALIZED SELECTION LIST (CSL) ANNOUNCEMENT, ISSUED: [25 APR 2024]. The CSL26 process will occur in four phases. The first phase begins on 20 May 2024 when eligible officers will have the opportunity to OPT-IN to CSL26. Once officers have elected to compete for CSL, the Army will determine the invitation list for BCAP 26 using each officer’s past performance against the total requirements for each branch. The second phase consists of participation at BCAP 26 from 18 October thru 11 November 2024 and encompasses the Job Performance Panel (JPP). The JPP considers officers who are Certified for Command (CFC) and considers the totality of their file to determine the OML. The third phase consists of slating officers against Army requirements. The fourth and final phase is the CSA’s approval of the CSL Slate. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319531

 

 

     g. MILPER MESSAGE 24-150, FISCAL YEAR 2024 (FY24) ACTIVE COMPONENT (AC), LIEUTENANT COLONEL (LTC), JUDGE ADVOCATE GENERAL’S CORPS (JAGC), PROMOTION SELECTION BOARD (PSB), ZONES OF CONSIDERATION, ISSUED: [25 APR 2024]. Subject selection boards will convene on 15 Jul 24 to consider eligible Majors (MAJ) on the Active Duty List (ADL) for promotion to LTC. The board will recess on or about 19 Jul 24. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319532

 

 

     h. MILPER MESSAGE 24-151, FISCAL YEAR 2024 (FY24) ACTIVE COMPONENT (AC), MAJOR (MAJ), JUDGE ADVOCATE GENERAL’S CORPS (JAGC), PROMOTION SELECTION BOARD (PSB), ZONES OF CONSIDERATION, ISSUED: [25 APR 24]. Subject selection boards will convene on 5 Aug 24 to consider eligible Captains (CPT) on the Active Duty List (ADL) for promotion to MAJ. The board will recess on or about 9 Aug 24. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319533

 

 

     i. MILPER MESSAGE 24-152, FISCAL YEAR 2024 (FY24) ACTIVE COMPONENT (AC), COLONEL (COL), JUDGE ADVOCATE GENERAL’S CORPS (JAGC), PROMOTION SELECTION BOARD (PSB), ZONES OF CONSIDERATION, ISSUED: [25 APR 2024]. Subject selection boards will convene on 24 Jun 24 to consider eligible Lieutenant Colonel (LTC) on the Active Duty List (ADL) for promotion to COL. The board will recess on or about 28 Jun 24. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319534

 

 

     j. MILPER MESSAGE 24-153, CALENDAR YEAR (CY) 25 REGULAR ARMY (RA), CAREER MANAGEMENT FIELD (CMF) 46 FIRST SERGEANT (1SG) SELECTION PANEL, ISSUED: [25 APR 2024]. The CY25 RA CMF 46 1SG Selection Panel is tentatively scheduled to convene 10-14 June 2024. This selection panel will also be used as a talent management tool to identify the most qualified MSGs for subsequent assignments. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319535

 

 

7. S1NET MEMBER REQUESTS.

 

 

     a. DUTY DESCRIPTIONS, 31A BDE S3. Hello, I'm having an issue finding duty descriptions for myself and other positions within my unit, was wondering if anyone could point me in the right direction to find 31A TPU BDE S3 duty descriptions? https://www.milsuite.mil/book/message/1061269

 

 

8. ARNG/USAR POSITIONS/JOBS AVAILABLE.  S1NET members have posted the following RC position/job vacancy information.  For a listing of all USAR primary vacancies (updated weekly) visit milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-375787. Units/commands who wish to post vacancies on S1NET may do so by following the instructions posted on the front page of the Job Announcements topic at the following link. Those posts which are in the correct location and which are posted in accordance with the instructions provided will be included in a future S1NET Message Summary. milsuite.mil/book/community/spaces/apf/s1net/jobannouncementsmobvacancies    

 

 

     a. FY-24 USAFRICOM RESERVE VACANT POSITIONS (ADOS, MPA, IMA) - READY FOR FILL, ARMY, AIR FORCE, AND NAVY POSITIONS, STUTTGART, GERMANY. USA ADOS: 70H(LTC), 25A(LTC), 48J(LTC), 01A(CPT), 01A(MAJ), 420A(CW2-CW3) USA IMA: 35F(SSG), 30A(MAJ), 37A 3A(MAJ), 30A 3A(MAJ), 12A 3A(LTC).  https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1302870

 

 

     b. 6TH MEDICAL LOGISTICS MANAGEMENT CENTER (6MLMC), 44TH MED BDE TPU VACANCY ANNOUNCEMENT, FORT DETRICK, MD. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1318764

 

 

     c. US ARMY MILITARY OBSERVER GROUP- MULTIPLE OCONUS OP-ADOS POSITIONS IN SUPPORT OF UNITED NATIONS PEACEKEEPING MISSIONS (ARNG, USAR, IMA, IRR). https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319258

 

 

     d. MILITARY INTELLIGENCE READINESS COMMAND (MIRC), USARE CENTCOM DET, MULTIPLE TPU O-6 VACANCIES, VARIOUS LOCATIONS. https://www.milsuite.mil/book/docs/DOC-1319387

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PPM CIO-020 CHIEF INFORMATION OFFICER GUIDANCE FOR INTEROPERABILITY OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY, INCLUDING NATIONAL SECURITY SYSTEMS

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40758-PPM_CIO-020-000-WEB-1.pdf

DEPARTMENT OF THE ARMY
CHIEF INFORMATION OFFICER
107 ARMY PENTAGON
WASHINGTON DC 20310-0107
ADS-GOV-NA-020
SAIS-ADS (25-1rrrr)
MEMORANDUM FOR DISTRIBUTION
SUBJECT: Chief Information Officer Guidance for Interoperability of Information
Technology, Including National Security Systems
1. References. See Enclosure 1.
2. Purpose. This memorandum refines policy and provides direction for certifying the
interoperability of Information Technology (IT) and National Security Systems (NSS)
pursuant to Sections 2222, 2223, and 2224 of Title 10, United States Code.
3. Background.
a. Pursuant to Title 10, Section 2223 (reference 1a), the Army Chief Information
Officer (CIO) is responsible for ensuring that Army IT and NSS are interoperable with
other relevant IT and NSS of the Government and the Department of Defense.
b. The CIO is responsible for Army IT and NSS meeting Department of Defense (DoD)
interoperability requirements for new acquisitions or updates to existing systems, pursuant
to Title 40 U.S. Code Section 11315 (reference 1b), Department of Defense Directive
(DoDD) 5000.01 (reference 1c), Department of Defense Instruction (DoDI) 5000.02
(reference 1d), and DoDI 8330.01 (reference 1e).
c. On 03 May 2023, HQDA EXORD 157-23 in support of (ISO) Army Interoperability
Certification (AIC) (reference 1f) provided guidance for modernizing AIC mission
functions.
d. Pursuant to DoDI 8330.01, the Army CIO shall establish policy and guidance and
provide oversight for developing a capability-focused, architecture-based approach to
achieve IT interoperability.
4. Guidance.
a. The Army OCIO will coordinate with ASA(ALT), Program Executive Offices
(PEOs) or Program Managers (PMs) to execute the following:
24 April 2024
2
SAIS-ADS (25-1rrrr)
SUBJECT: Chief Information Officer Guidance for Interoperability of Information
Technology, Including National Security Systems
(1) PMs will develop and execute test process(es) with sufficient rigor to validate
IT and NSS interoperability and submit the proposed test process(es) to the Army CIO
for certification. The ASA (ALT), PEOs, or PMs are authorized to certify systems and
software as interoperable.
(2) ASA (ALT), PEOs, or PMs will meet Army-Defined Trigger Definitions
(Enclosure 2) for IT and NSS prior to fielding. When fielding IT and NSS that do not
meet Army-Defined Trigger Definitions, follow the Revised Non-Interoperability Self
Determination Process (reference 1g).
(3) PMs will certify that IT and NSS are interoperable within their intended
environment prior to fielding and comply with Army and DoD interoperability regulations,
directives, and instructions per paragraph 3a.
(4) PMs will submit IT and NSS certifications to the appropriate Milestone
Decision Authority and Materiel Release Authority as required.
(5) PEOs can approve interoperability waivers or exemptions when IT and NSS
have no interoperability requirement. The approved IT and NSS waiver or exemption
must be submitted to the appropriate Milestone Decision Authority and Materiel Release
Authority.
(6) PMs will submit IT and NSS certifications, waivers, and exemptions in a
timely manner to HQDA, DCS G-6.
(7) ASA (ALT) will provide the OCIO with an initial assessment identifying plans
to support and resource the test and certification mission.
b. HQDA, DCS G-6 is for the operational interoperability and
interface requirements that ASA (ALT), PEOs, or PMs will use to execute
interoperability certification testing.
. This guidance further clarifies prior guidance related to Army Interoperability
Certification provided in AR 25-1 and DA Pam 25-1-1.
5. Expiration and review.
a. This guidance is effective immediately and remains in effect until superseded or
rescinded.
SAIS-ADS (25-1rrrr)
SUBJECT: Chief Information Officer Guidance for Interoperability of Information
Technology, Including National Security Systems
3
b. The OCIO Standards and Compliance Division will review this guidance for
updates annually by 1 October of each calendar year.
6. Points of contact.
a. CIO Policy Inbox: usarmy.pentagon.hqda-cio.mbx.policy-inbx@army.mil.
b. OCIO Standards and Compliance Division: Dr. Gregory C. Smoots,
(703) 692-0537, gregory.c.smoots.civ@army.mil.
Encls LEONEL T. GARCIGA
Chief Information Officer
DISTRIBUTION:
Principal Officials of Headquarters, Department of the Army
Commander
U.S. Army Forces Command
U.S. Army Training and Doctrine Command
U.S. Army Materiel Command
U.S. Army Futures Command
U.S. Army Pacific
U.S. Army Europe and Africa
U.S. Army Central
U.S. Army North
U.S. Army South
U.S. Army Special Operations Command
Military Surface Deployment and Distribution Command
U.S. Army Space and Missile Defense Command/Army Strategic Command
U.S. Army Cyber Command
U.S. Army Medical Command
U.S. Army Intelligence and Security Command
U.S. Army Corps of Engineers
U.S. Army Military District of Washington
U.S. Army Test and Evaluation Command
U.S. Army Human Resources Command
U.S. Army Corrections Command
U.S. Army Recruiting Command
(CONT)
SAIS-ADS (25-1rrrr)
SUBJECT: Chief Information Officer Guidance for Interoperability of Information
Technology, Including National Security Systems
4
DISTRIBUTION: (CONT)
Superintendent, U.S. Military Academy
Commandant, U.S. Army War College
Director, U.S. Army Civilian Human Resources Agency
Executive Director, Military Postal Service Agency
Director, U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Division
Director, Civilian Protection Center of Excellence
Director, U.S. Army Joint Counter-Small Unmanned Aircraft Systems Office
Superintendent, Arlington National Cemetery
Director, U.S. Army Acquisition Support Center
CF:
Principal Cyber Advisor
Director of Enterprise Management
Director, Office of Analytics Integration
Commander, Eighth Army
Enclosure 1
REFERENCES
a. Title 10, United States Code, Section 2223 (2011)
b. Title 40, United States Code, Section 11315 (2012)
c. DoDD 5000.01 (The Defense Acquisition System)
d. DoDI 5000.02 (Operation of the Adaptive Acquisition Framework)
e. DoDI 8330.01 (Interoperability of Information Technology, Including National Security
Systems)
f. DoDI 8310.01 (Information Technology Standards in the DoD)
g. DoDI 5000.82 (Requirements for the Acquisition of Digital Capabilities)
h. DoDI 4120.24 (Defense Standardization Program)
i. AR 25-1 (Army Information Technology)
j. DA Pam 25-1-1 (Army Information Technology Implementation Instructions)
k. HQDA EXORD 157-23 m(ISO Army Interoperability Certification (AIC)
Modernization), 03 May 2023
l. HQDA, DCS G-6 memorandum (Revised Non-Interoperability Self Determination
Process), 25 June 2023
Enclosure 2
Army-Defined Trigger Definitions 

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MILPER Number: 24-144 Fiscal Year 2025 (FY25) Noncommissioned Officer Leadership Center of Excellence (NCOLCoE) and the Sergeants Major Academy (SGM-A) Fellowship Program Cohort 11

1.  This message will expire no later than (NLT) 2 March 2025.


2.  The FY25 Noncommissioned Officer Leadership Center of Excellence (NCOLCoE) and the Sergeants Major Academy (SGM-A) Fellowship Program Cohort 11 Selection Panel will Convene 14 -18 October 2024 at Fort Bliss, Texas to identify the best qualified list for final selection of Fellows. The deadline for submitting applications is 2 October 2024.

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-144

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Unit 12 Quiz: Wildland Urban Interface | S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

1. Safety concerns and hazards while working in the wildland/urban interface are
• different from hazards on a normal wildland fire.
  
  
2. Identify THREE key foundational principles to follow, especially during incidents in the wildland/urban interface.
• Establish good communications with all involved agencies
• Understand your safety is first priority
• Determine your place in the chain of command
  
  
3. Identify FOUR “Watch-Out!” situations that apply specifically to fighting fires in the wildland/urban interface.
• Poor roads
• Inadequate water supply
• Natural fuels 30 feet (9 m) or closer to structures
• Panic during evacuation
  
  
4. Structure defense adds a whole new dimension to wildland fire fighting. Match each wildland/urban interface “Watch-out!” with the MOST appropriate caution.
• Can be complicated by power outages → Inadequate water supply
• Can push flame angle closer fuels → Strong winds
• Requires mobility and flexibility in the fire fighting effort → Extreme fire behavior
• Don’t apply a straight water stream near it → Downed power lines
• Can be complicated by lack of training → Panic during an evacuation
  
  
5. Roads and traffic management can become a critical issue when fighting fires in the interface. Identify FOUR road and traffic related problems you are likely to encounter.
• Private roads and driveways with only one way in
• Steep roads that are poor barriers to a spreading fire
• Roads with washouts, washboards, and large potholes
• Fire vehicles exceeding the bridge weight limits
  
  
6. Identify TWO ways to reduce a structure’s vulnerability to ignition and limit potential fire spread.
• Check eaves, roof, roof vents, and decks for smoldering or flames
• Remove combustible furniture from decks and place them inside structure
  
  
7. Structure fires can be deadly, but there are tell-tale signs pointing to trouble. Identify THREE structure situations you should avoid at ALL times. 
• Bulging windows with an unventilated roof
• Smoked-over or blackened windows
• Roofs that are over 25 percent enflamed during windy conditions
  
  
8. In the wildland/urban interface, hazardous materials pose a threat to your safety because of their flammability or toxicity. Identify FOUR precautions to take when you suspect hazardous materials are present at an incident.  
• Mark off area with flagging material or other warning devices
• Post a lookout
• Keep your supervisor informed of hazards
• Avoid breathing toxic fumes
  
  
9. Extreme fire behavior has caused major losses of life and property in the interface. Identify THREE contributing factors to extreme fire behavior.
• Dry and plentiful fuels
• Unstable atmosphere
• Eye level wind speed greater than 15 miles per hour (24 km/hour)
  
  
10. For threatened structures in the wildland/urban interface, certain assessments have to be made. Match each assessment criteria with a PRIMARY factor it attempts to determine.
• Fire fighting tactics → Whether to attack directly, indirectly, or not at all
• Structure distribution  → What structures might be saved
• Estimated time the will hit → When to escape to safety zone
  
  
11. Match each tactic you may use in protecting structures in the interface with the proper description.
    
• Hopeless situation → Abandoning fire fighting efforts and retreating to safety zone
• Direct attack → Attacking the fire at the burning edge before it arrives
• Indirect attack → Controlling the fire with a fireline
  
  
12. There are three tactical modes for fires in the wildland/urban interface. Match each category with an appropriate tactic.
• Offensive mode → Fight the fire before it reaches the structure
• Combined mode → Hold the fire to reduce number of structures threatened
• Defensive mode → Keep the structure from burning
  

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Unit 11 Quiz: Hazardous Material | S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

1. Identify the THREE main hazards of hazardous materials.
• Health
• Fire
• Explosive
  
  
2. Identify the set of terms that BEST completes the sentence below.
• Hazardous materials can be a [single] material or a combination of [several] materials.
  
  
3. Identify THREE hazards you might commonly encounter at farms and ranches.
• Dynamite
• Above ground diesel tanks
• bulk chemicals
  
  
4. Identify THREE steps for wildland firefighters to take at a hazardous materials incident:
• Isolate the area to ensure the safety of people and the environment
• Move people from the scene to a safe area
• Allow room for equipment movement
  
  
5. The acronym describing the series of proper decisions to make for reducing a hazardous materials incident’s potential harm is
   
• DECIDE
  
  
6. Match each element of the DECIDE process with the appropriate description.
• Identify → Action options
• Do → The best option
• Estimate → The likely harm and size of the material
• Evaluate → Progress
• Detect   → Any hazardous materials present
• Choose → A response objective
  
  
7. There are six main detection clues to look for at a HazMat incident. Match each clue with an example of what to look for.
• Occupancy and location → Type of materials manufactured, stored, or used
• Senses → Vapor clouds and hissing noises
• Container shapes → Cylindrical tanks or rounded ends
• Markings and colors → Names, numbering, or stenciling
• Shipping papers → Documents listing chemical name, number, and type
• Placards and labels → Diamond-shaped images
  
  
8. Identify the most dangerous hazardous material detection clue to rely on.
• Your senses
  
  
9. While fighting a fire in a wildland environment, you see in the distance a fenced in area with large cylindrical tanks. You are already uphill and upwind of the area. The FIRST step you should take is to
• attempt to identify the material by using binoculars.
  
  
10. Identify the guidebook that is an excellent resource for more information about hazardous materials.
• Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)
  

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Unit 10 Quiz: Suppression, Communication, and Mop-up | S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

1. You’re trying to bring a wildland grass fire under control by removing one or more parts of the fire triangle. Identify THREE things you could remove from this scenario to break the fire triangle.
   
• Heat source
• Dry grass
• Oxygen
   
2. To control a fire, you need to break the fire triangle by removing one or more of the required elements. Select FOUR ways to remove heat energy from a fire.
• Cover with mineral soil
• Spray with water
• Apply retardant
• Expose hot materials to night air
   
3. Match each fire attack method with the situation you’ll employ it in.
• Used when avoiding an excessively long control line → Parallel attack
• When flame lengths exceed 8 feet (2.4 meters) → Indirect attack
• Moderately intense fires moving at a moderate rate of spread (ROS) → Flank attack
• Used when plenty of resources are available → Direct attack
   
4.  You and your crew arrive at a wildland fire scene and find flames 10 feet (3 m) high. The supervisor orders an indirect attack. Identify TWO characteristics of an indirect attack.
   
• Requires firefighters to build control lines
• Requires burnout or backfiring of fuels between control line and fire edge
  
  
5. Identify THREE commonly used applications for burning-out operations. Select one or more:
• Widen a control line
• Eliminate islands of unburned fuel
• Create escape routes and safety zones
  
  
6. Match each suppression technique with the correct description.
• Scratch line → Preliminary control line built to quickly check the fire’s spread
• Cup trench → Trench built on steep terrain to stop rolling debris
• Cold trailing → Feeling to detect fire
• extinguishing hot spots, lining live edges
• Backfiring  → Elimination of unburned fuel between a fire’s edge and a control line
• Hotspotting → Rapid attack on the hot-burning points of a fire’s edge
  
  
7.  The goal of burning out is to burn all fuels between the control line and the main fire in order to secure the control line and ensure firefighter safety. The activity used to fulfill this goal is called 
• blackening
  
  
8. Effective control lines all have
• an anchor point
  
  
9. Match each type of control line to the correct description.
• Control line on a slope below a fire → Underslung line
• Preliminary control line to quickly check the fire’s spread → Scratch line
• Portion of control line cleared completely to mineral soil → Fireline
• Temporary line made with water, foam, or retardants → Wet line
  
  
10. Identify THREE effective methods for control line construction. Select one or more:
    
• Throw all burned or charred material into the black
• Clear the line down to mineral soil
• Make the line wide enough to be effective, but no wider
  
  
11. You’ve just been told that an air tanker is going to drop retardant soon. How far away should you stand perpendicular from the drop?
• 200 feet (61 m)
  
  
12. Airdrops present opportunities and challenges. After an airdrop, you can often take advantage of the agent’s effects on the fire. Choose the set of words BEST completing the following sentence. After an airdrop, retardant can make the area 
• slick
  
  
13. Working safely around heavy equipment means staying visible and approaching the equipment from the right direction. Select THREE ways you can stay safe around heavy equipment.
• Approach mechanized equipment from the sides
• Post a lookout
• Wear proper personal protective equipment (PPE)
  
  
14. One of the most important safety practices to follow around mechanized equipment is to
• maintain effective communication between the equipment operator and the ground crews.
  
  
15. Identify FIVE communication methods firefighters can use with crew members. Select one or more:
• Whistles
• Runners
• Signal mirrors
• Signal flags
• Hand signals
  
  
16. Identify the THREE main classes of radios. Select one or more:
• Very high frequency (VHF)
• Ultra high frequency (UHF)
• Low-band
  
  
17. Very high frequency (VHF) is the type of radio class employed MOST often in wildland fire operations.
    
    
18. Very high frequency (VHF) is the type of radio class employed MOST often in wildland fire operations.
    
    
19. Use clear text terms when you are transmitting radio messages on large-scale operations. Match each example of an agency-specific radio code with an appropriate clear text equivalent.
• Pumper → Engine
• Wheeled tank vehicle → Water tender
• Tanker → Air tanker
• Mobile water supply apparatus → Tender
  
  
20. Generally, you’ll get prompt action when you use your radio properly. Identify THREE procedures to follow when receiving and transmitting a radio message.
• Hold the radio 2 to 4 inches (5 to 10 cm) from your mouth when speaking
• Close the call with the proper identifier only if you initiated the call
• When calling, first transmit the station name or unit number of the other person
  
  
21. Identify THREE things a patrol should do while searching for a spot fire.
• Select two reference points in your assigned area
• Patrol areas at intervals determined by fuel’s threat
• Patrol the area in a pattern parallel to the fireline
  
  
22. Match each mop-up situation to the appropriate action.
• Log on a slope → Turn to lie with the slope
• Snag burning at the top → Fell into the black
• Testing for heat    → Bare back of hand close, but not touching
• All smoldering material → Extinguished within a specified distance of the control line
• Snag burning at base → Peel off loose bark
• Hot material on a slope → Trench on downhill side
  

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Unit 9 Quiz: Water Use | S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

1. Select THREE characteristics of a well maintained backpack pump.
• Seals are pliable and not dehydrated. Correct
• Moving pistons and suction check valves are lubricated. Correct
• All parts are free of dirt or rust
  
  
2.  Your backpack pump suddenly stops working while you’re on the fireline. What TWO steps should you take?
• Check for water in the tank
• Check nozzle tip for blockage
  
   
3.  You may need to attack small fires and hot spots that are not within reach of hoselines. Identify a form of portable fire extinguisher that carries plain water or a foam and water solution.
• Backpack pump
  
  
4.  Identify the adapter you need to divide one hoseline into two hoselines of equal or smaller diameter.
   
• Gated wye
  
  
5.  The vast majority of wildland hose in the U.S. are lightweight versions of what type of hose?
   
• jacketed, lined fire hose
  
  
6.  You know to use water intermittently on the fireline. You can clamp off the hose when water isn’t needed. You must place the clamp at LEAST how far away from any coupling?
• 18 inches (46 cm)
  
   
7.  You just clamped off the hose line. What is your next step?
• Open the nozzle to relieve pressure
  
   
8.  Progressive hose lays are normally created with hose from
• a hose pack carried by a firefighter.
  
   
9.  Match each component of a progressive hose lay to the appropriate use. You may use a component more than once.
• Get the next length to the appropriate location → Hose packs
• Protect the attack line from minor flare-ups → Lateral lines
• Mop-up → Lateral lines
• Restrict water flow → Hose clamps
• The starting location for any progressive hose lay → Anchor points
• Addition of lateral lines → Hoseline tees
  
  
10.  Identify TWO proper methods for rolling fire hose.
• Watermelon roll
• Figure eight roll
  

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Unit 8 Quiz: Firing Devices | S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

1. Fusees burn [phosphorus] contained within the body of the device, burning very hot (1,400° F or 760° C), and easily igniting grass, twigs, leaves, and other light fuels.
   
   
2. Fusees burn at 1,400° F or 760° C, but there’s more than heat to this potentially hazardous device. Identify TWO fusee hazards.
• Toxic fumes
• Splattering phosphorous slag
  
  
3.  All of the following are drip torch hazards, EXCEPT
   
• poisonous fumes
  
  
4.  The fuel mixture you will typically use in the drip-torch tank is [four] parts diesel fuel to [one] part gasoline.
   
   
5. Sometimes firefighters may have to burn out without a drip torch or fusee. Identify FOUR items you could use in the field to burn out with.
• Burning leaves or needles placed in unburned fuel with a shovel
• Burning branches
• Burning rag wrapped around a stick
• Matches or a cigarette lighter
  
  
6.  You’ve spilled fuel on your clothes while preparing to store the drip torch. Identify the procedure you should take with your clothes.
• Change out of any fuel-contaminated clothes and wash them before wearing again
  
  
7.  Identify TWO steps for preparing a drip torch for its next use.
• Extinguishing the wick or let it burn dry
• Allowing the entire unit to cool to ambient temperature
  
  
8.  All of the following techniques for operating a drip torch encourage safety, EXCEPT
• igniting the torch wick with a lighter or match.
   

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Unit 7 Quiz: Hand Tools | S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

1. Match each tool care and maintenance issue with the appropriate action.
• Splintered wooden handle → Sand and refinish with light coating of linseed oil
• Dull cutting edge → Sharpen using a hand file
• Cracked handle → Replace immediately
• Rusted tool head → Clean and give a light coating of oil
  
  
2.  Identify THREE ways to use hand tools safely.
• Keep your eyes on what is being cut
• Wear safety glasses at all times
• Watch your cutting angle to prevent ricochet
  
  
3.  Identify TWO benefits of sharp blades on hand tools.
• Cuts more effectively than a dull one
• Allows you to use short, sharp cutting strokes
   
  
  
4.  Identify TWO applications a Pulaski is well suited for.
• Chopping stumps and logs
• Digging out roots and cutting trenches
   
  
5.  A fire swatter is most effective when used with another tool. Identify TWO tools you can use in conjunction with a fire swatter.
• Fire rake
• Backpack pump
   
  
6.  A single-bit ax is BEST suited for
• felling snags, chopping stumps and logs, and driving wedges.
  
  
7.  During the construction of a fireline, you need a scraping tool that is suited to cut grass, deep litter, and light brush, as well as to trench, grub, and rake. Identify the tool that is capable of fulfilling your needs.
•  McLeod
  
  
8.  Identify TWO safety procedures to follow when carrying hand tools.
• Do not run with hand tools
• Hold the tool on the downhill side when walking across a slope
  
   
9.  You are approaching a slope while fire fighting. Identify THREE ways to correctly carry your hand tool.
• Hold the tool at its balance point
• Keep the tool at your side and close to your body
• Situate the tool on the downhill side of your body
  
  
10.  Identify the distance firefighters should maintain when walking or working with hand tools.
• 10 feet (3 m)
   

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Unit 6 Quiz: Transportation Safety | S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

1. Identify THREE safety guidelines for operators of fire apparatus.
• Require passengers to wear safety belts
• Require passengers to wear protective gear
• Turn apparatus headlights on when the vehicle is in motion
  
  
2.  All-wheel and four-wheel drive vehicles have excellent climbing ability in off-road conditions, but their higher center of gravity increases the risk of rollovers. You should never drive across a slope with a grade more than
• 20 percent
  
  
3.  Protecting the apparatus from damage is an important part of effective fire fighting. Identify THREE guidelines for protecting apparatus.
• Do not lock apparatus doors
• Roll up all windows completely
• Close all compartment doors
  
  
4.  Personnel transport vehicles are a common method for moving firefighters to the fireline. Identify TWO safety guidelines for operating a personnel transport.
• Limit driving shifts to no more than 10 hours
• Don't transport loose tools and personnel together
  
   
5.  At the scene of a roadside fire, you find you must park on the roadway. What is the first action for you to take?
• Set up cones and flares
  
   
6.  Helicopters provide a way to reach remote fire zones quickly. Identify TWO safety precautions you should follow in a helicopter landing zone.
• Stay at least 100 feet (30 m) away unless authorized to approach by the pilot or crew
• Wear eye and hearing protection
  
   
7.  Identify THREE safety precautions for loading and unloading helicopters.
• Approach or leave on the downhill side of the helicopter
• Stoop as you approach or leave
• Keep your safety harness fastened until the pilot directs you to unbuckle
  
   
8.  Identify THREE safety guidelines for working on or near fixed-wing aircraft.
• Do not smoke within 100 feet (30 m) of the aircraft
• Wear eye and hearing protection around operating aircraft
• Attempt to maintain eye contact with the pilot to be sure he or she sees you
  
   
9.  Safety precautions for loading and unloading fixed-wing aircraft differ from safety guidelines for helicopters. Match each type of aircraft to correct precautions for loading and unloading. You may use each aircraft type more than once.
• Walk upright as you approach → Fixed-wing
• Carry tools below your waist → Helicopter
• Crouch as you approach → Helicopter
• Approach from aft door → Fixed-wing
  
   
10.  Identify the TRUE statement about boat transportation procedures.
• Stay seated until the crew directs you to unload
   

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Unit 5 Quiz: Hazards and Human Factors on the Fireline | S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

1. Safety means being secure from danger or harm. Identify TWO resources you can consult to review crucial checklists and standards.
• Incident Response Pocket Guide (IRPG)
• Fireline Handbook
  
  
2.  Controlling [known hazards] is one way to stay safe.
   
   
3. Identify THREE foundational principles of situational awareness.
• Gathering information by observation and communication
• The foundation of all the decision making
• An ongoing cycle
  
  
4.  Identify TWO reasons you need to maintain your situational awareness.
• You cannot depend entirely on your supervisor to see everything out there.
• Individual responsibility for personal safety begins from the first fire assignment on.
  
  
5.  When working in burned-over areas, you can be sure to identify snags, holes, rocks, and materials still burning if you remember to always
• look up, look down, and look around.
  
  
6.  Identify THREE responsibilities of a good communicator.
• Clarify any unclear information.
• Ask questions.
• Repeat instructions back to your supervisor.
  
  
7. All of the following are barriers to good communication, EXCEPT
• repeating instructions to make sure the message is clear.
  
  
8.  Many hazards you can control, many others you can avoid. You should be able to directly control
•  subjective hazards.
  
  
9.  Panic is dangerous and contagious! When the warning is signaled of an approaching fire, identify a personal survival technique that might save your life.
• Know the locations of escape routes and safety zones.
  
  
10.  Identify THREE benefits to a tool with a sharp blade.
• Cuts more effectively than a dull one
• Allows you to use short, sharp cutting strokes
• Reduces the need for you to raise a tool above your head
  
   
11.  The incident commander (IC) has stopped firing operations because it has become too intense for crews to control. Firing operations may resume when
• intensity diminishes and crews regain control.
  
   
12.  Before starting backfiring or burning out operations
• clearly identify escape routes and safety zones.
  
   
13.  When working in burned-over areas, always look up, look down, and look around. Identify FOUR things you should be looking for.
• Snags
• Holes
• Rocks
• Materials still burning
  
   
14.  Do you have the risk management process down? Match each risk management step with a typical task belonging to each step.
• Identify known hazards → Hazard assessment
• Take notice that the fire's location has changed → Evaluation
• Alert supervisor if you have a safety concern → Decision points
• Have lookout in place → Controlling hazards
   

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Unit 4 Quiz: Fire Shelter | S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

1. Fire shelters are designed to minimize burns and prevent asphyxiation from hot gases. Identify the main type of heat that fire shelters are designed to reflect.
• Radiant
  
  
2. You should wear your fire shelter in a position on your web gear or fireline pack where
• you can get it out quickly even while running.
  
  
3. Identify THREE situations when you should replace your fire shelter.
• Storage bag has turned gray.
• Tears exceeding 1/4 inch (6 mm) are detected along folded edges.
• Foil is missing in lengths of 1/2 inch (13 mm) or more.
  
  
4.  Identify FOUR techniques to ensure your survival while inside a deployed fire shelter.
• Scoop out as much dirt as you can where your head is
• Press your face to the ground to breathe
• Use hold-down straps and turned-in skirt for holding shelter to the ground
• Wear gloves inside the shelter
  
  
5.  Select TWO aspects of situational awareness serving to prevent you from having to deploy your fire shelter.
   • Establish escape routes throughout the day
   • Post lookouts
     
     
6. Identify FOUR good places to locate your fire shelter.
• In burned areas with no reburn potential
• In wide control lines
• In areas with light fuels
• In natural firebreaks
  
  
7. All of the following are good places to deploy a fire shelter, EXCEPT
• heavily trafficked roads
  
  
8.  Entrapment is imminent and you need to deploy a fire shelter fast! You should
• drop excess gear immediately.
  
  
9.  The order has come in to deploy fire shelters. Place the fire shelter deployment steps in order.
• Step 1 → Remove shelter from packaging
  
• Step 2 → Open and shake out shelter completely
• Step 3 → Stand inside opened shelter
• Step 4 → Get into a face-down position with your feet toward the fire
• Step 5 → Use your head and extremities to secure the edges of the shelter
• Step 6 → Push out the top and sides of shelter to maximize insulating space
  
  
10.  Deploying fire shelters in windy conditions can be tricky. Select THREE steps for deploying fire shelters during a strong wind.
• Lie on your back or sit with your head toward the wind
• Allow the wind to fill the shelter with air
• Insert your boots inside the straps at the bottom of the shelter to secure it
  

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Unit 3 Quiz: Watch Outs and LCES | S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

1. Identify a fire behavior that is a common denominator in most tragic incidents.
   
• Tragedies occur on smaller fires or on isolated portions of larger fires.
  
  
2. As a product of years of experience in countless wildland fires, your Incident Response Pocket Guide (IRPG) lists a set of situations you should watch out for. How many situations that shout "Watch out!" are listed in the IRPG?
• 18
  
  
3. The "Watch-out!" situations are intended to warn you of some very dangerous conditions. Identify THREE "Watch-out!" situations from the "Watch-out!" list.
• Uninformed on strategy, tactics, and hazards
• Constructing line without safe anchor point
• Wind increases or changes direction
  
  
4. One way to learn the "Watch-out!" situations is to know what the "Watch-out!" situations are not. All of the following are "Watch-out!" situations, EXCEPT
• fire burning uphill away from the black.
  
  
5. If followed sequentially, the 10 Standard Fire fighting Orders are designed to keep firefighters safe on an incident. All of the following are Standard Fire fighting Orders, EXCEPT
• Maintain engines, radios, and camp gear.
  
  
6. LCES is an acronym representing the key operational components of the 10 Standard Fire Orders. Let's see how good your memory is. What do the letters in the LCES acronym stand for?
• Lookouts, communications, escape routes, safety zones
  
  
7. Escape routes should provide the quickest possible path to the safety zone. Identify FOUR travel barriers that could affect escape time to a safety zone.
• Hills
• Loose soils
• Rocks
• Vegetation
  
  
8. There is more than one kind of safety zone you can escape to. Identify THREE examples of safety zones.
• The burn
• Natural areas
• Constructed areas
  
  
9. When no natural safety zones are at hand, you can construct your own. Identify TWO methods you can use to construct safety zones.
• Engage mechanized equipment
• Burn out an area
  
  
10. When considering the size of safety zones, your Incident Response Pocket Guide (IRPG) has specific distance recommendations for how far to separate firefighters from the nearest fuels. Those specific distance recommendations are based on the assumption that there
• is no slope and no wind.
  

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Unit 2 Quiz: Preparedness, ICS, and Resources | S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

1. Match each wildland fire part to the best description.
• Greatest forward rate of spread → Head
• Outer boundary of the burning area → Perimeter
• Long, narrow strip of fire → Finger
• Fire at this point usually burns into prevailing wind → Rear
• Roughly parallel to the main direction of fire spread → Flank
• Unburned area in the black → Island
  
  
2. The [Head] is the part of a wildland fire with the greatest forward rate of spread (ROS).
   
   
3. Match the following common terms related to wildland firefighting to the best description.
• The area in which the fire has consumed the fuels → Black
• Marks the final extinguishing of a fire after it is lined → Mopup
• When fire crosses a natural barrier intended to confine the fire → Slopover
• Any area that's not burnt, but is adjacent to an involved area → Green
  
  
4. A [smoldering] fire burns without flame while a [running] fire burns rapidly with a well-defined head.
   
   
5. Match the following fire behavior terms with the corresponding description.
• A fire periodically igniting the crown of trees → Torching
• Sparks produced by the main fire are carried by winds → Spotting
• A fire moving away from the head or against the wind → Backing
• A fire that burns with a low flame and spreads slowly → Creeping
• A fire that spreads rapidly with a well-defined head → Running
• A fire primarily advancing across the tops of trees → Crowning
  
  
6. A [blowup] occurs when there's a sudden increase in ROS sufficient to prevent or rule out direct control of the fire.
   
   
7. Wildland firefighter protective clothing is designed to protect you from which of the following THREE threats?
• Personal Injury
• Radiant Heat
• Hostile ambient temperatures
  
  
8. Identify FOUR items that may be part of a minimum ensemble of personal protective equipment (PPE) for wildland fire fighting.
   
• Gloves
• Hard hat
• Eye protection
• Fire shelter
  
  
9. [Aerobic fitness] is a measure of the maximum amount of oxygen that you can take into your body and transport to the muscles.
   
   
10. Identify FOUR actions you can take to make sure you perform physically well on the fireline.
    
• Avoid alcohol
• Stay away from eating red meat two days in a row
• Limit eggs to one per day
• Concentrate on getting enough carbohydrates
  
  
11. Identify THREE facets affected by cultural differences.
    
• Food
• Housing
• Dress
  
  
12. Match each management principle with the best description.
    
• Span of control → Allows supervisors to track and monitor subordinates
• Unified command → An established and common set of incident objectives
• Personnel accountability → Tracks resources and assignment lists
  
  
13. Identify THREE items an incident commander (IC) will identify before an initial attack.
    
• Location of the fire
• Fuel types
• Weather conditions
  
  
14. Match each incident command system (ICS) section with its primary function and place under an incident action plan (IAP).
    
• Logistics → Provides all support needs (except aircraft) on an incident
• Planning → Collects, evaluates, and makes assignments through the IAP
• Operations → Achieves the objectives outlined by the IC and the IAP
• Finance/Administration → Assists agencies requiring cost-recovery and other services
• Command → Directs the overall management of the incident
  

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S-130 Firefighter Training (Online Component) 2008 v2

Description 

This course is offered as blended training which includes an Online (OLT) and an Instructor-led (ILT) component. The ILT portion of this course includes a required field exercise that may be arduous in nature. The intent of this course is to train new firefighters in basic firefighting skills and addresses the foundational skills universal to all wildland firefighters.  The target group for this course is personnel desiring to be qualified as entry-level wildland firefighters and support personnel. NOTE:  Check agency-specific guidelines as some agencies may have different requirements

Objectives

Upon completion of the online component and the mandatory Field Exercise, the student will be able to:

• Describe the purpose of the Standard Firefighting Orders and Watch Out Situations.
• Describe what the Lookouts, Communications, Escape Routes, and Safety Zones (LCES) system is and how it relates to the Standard Firefighting Orders.
• Describe the various communication methods and tools used for collecting, producing, and distributing information.
• Describe the standards, tools and equipment, and various methods used in fireline construction.​
• Describe the methods for extinguishing a fire with or without the use of water.​
• Demonstrate the ability to construct fireline to required standards using various methods, tools and equipment, and techniques.

The course material is divided into 12 online modules (1-3 hours each) and a mandatory instructor-led field exercise. Each online module explains the concepts and skills that will be performed and evaluated on the field exercise. Module 12 contains optional knowledge areas (pump operations, map and compass, fire investigation and cultural resources) that are very useful concepts but not required.

Prerequisite Training

Successful completion of S-190 Introduction to Wildland Fire Behavior.

Memo of Completion and Certificate

Once you have completed the online portion of this course, return to this page to SAVE/PRINT your Memo of Completion. The Memo is proof of your successful completion of the online component and must be provided to the instructor prior to the instructor-led field day.

Upon successful completion of the Field Day, the lead instructor will issue the student a S-130 Firefighter Training (Blended) 2008 certificate of completion.

Note: The in-person Instructor-led field day training is not managed by NWCG or WFLP and the student should contact their training provider or employer to locate and enroll in the in-person field day training.

Quizes

• Unit 2 Quiz: Preparedness, ICS, and Resources 
• Unit 3 Quiz: Watch Outs and LCES
• Unit 4 Quiz: Fire Shelter
• Unit 5 Quiz: Hazards and Human Factors on the Fireline 
• Unit 6 Quiz: Transportation Safety 
• Unit 7 Quiz: Hand Tools 
• Unit 8 Quiz: Firing Devices 
• Unit 9 Quiz: Water Use
  
• Unit 10 Quiz: Suppression, Communication, and Mop-up
• Unit 11 Quiz: Hazardous Material 
• Unit 12 Quiz: Wildland Urban Interface
  

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PPM CIO-011 CHIEF INFORMATION OFFICER, ARMY INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY (IT) STANDARDS AND COMPLIANCE POLICY

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40747-PPM_CIO-011-000-WEB-1.pdf

DEPARTMENT OF THE ARMY
CHIEF INFORMATION OFFICER
107 ARMY PENTAGON
WASHINGTON DC 20310-0107
ADS-GOV-CP-011
SAIS-ADS (25-1rrrr) 23 April 2024
MEMORANDUM FOR SEE DISTRIBUTION
SUBJECT: Chief Information Officer, Army Information Technology (IT) Standards and
Compliance Policy
1. References. See Enclosure 1.
2. Purpose. This memorandum provides the Army IT Standards and Compliance
Policy (ASCP) within the Department of the Army (DA). The ASCP ensures that Army
IT, including its National Security Systems (NSS), meets Department of Defense (DoD)
IT standards for new acquisitions and updates to existing systems, as per Title 10 of the
United States Code (U.S.C.) (reference 1a) and DoD Instruction (DoDI) 8310.01
(reference 1b).
3. Background. The Army Chief Information Officer (CIO) develops, coordinates, and
implements an assessment process that applies to the Department (DoD Directive
(DoDD) 5144.02 (reference 1c) and DoDI 8310.01.
4. Applicability. The provisions of this guidance apply to all Army organizations
responsible for developing, updating, or procuring Army IT, including its NSS.
5. Guidance. All Army organizations developing, updating, or procuring IT, including its
NSS, must use applicable IT standards, including data standards, prescribed in the DoD
IT Standards Registry (DISR). Appropriate IT standards are critical to achieving system
interoperability across the force.
a. All Army organizations developing, updating as applicable, or procuring IT,
including NSS, must submit a change request or waiver (see Enclosure 2) to the OCIO
if they use standards other than mandated or emerging for an acquisition program.
b. All Army organizations developing, updating as applicable, or procuring IT,
including NSS, must ensure compliance with IT standards prior to fielding and have
record available to the OCIO, reflecting system conformance.
c. The Office of the Chief Information Officer (OCIO) will recommend, advocate for,
and coordinate new or retired IT standards and ensure system conformance to the
SAIS-ADS (25-1rrrr)
SUBJECT: Chief Information Officer, Army Information Technology (IT) Standards and
Compliance Policy
approved standards within the DISR accessible from the Joint Assessments and
Standards Management (JASM) portal (https://jasm.apps.mil).
d. The OCIO will provide assessments according to the CIO guidance memorandum
(reference 1d) for compliance with 40 U.S.C. (the Clinger-Cohen Act) (reference 1e).
e. The OCIO will provide support to Army IT systems requiring a change request or
waiver to use IT standards other than mandated or emerging for acquisition programs.
All Army organizations will coordinate their requests for approval through the Milestone
Decision Authority (MDA), the Army OCIO, and the DoD CIO. (See Enclosure 2 for a
waiver request template.)
f. The OCIO will complete reviews of standards-based artifacts to support the
management of IT standards compliance for the Army.
g. The OCIO will establish policy and provide oversight and governance of Army IT
standards management in support of IT system interoperability across the Army, the
Joint Force and Multinational partners (to include Federated Mission Networking (FMN)
and American, British, Canadian, Australian, and New Zealand (ABCANZ) standards).
6. Benefits. The ASCP will enable compliance and effective IT standards management,
supporting the development of new acquisitions and updates to existing systems. It will
also allow the OCIO to advocate for change while ensuring the maintenance of system
interoperability.
7. Effective date. This clarifying guidance on the ASCP is effective immediately and will
be revised in the AR 25-1 and DA PAM 25-1-1 revisions on the next version.
8. Points of contact.
a. CIO Policy Inbox: usarmy.pentagon.hqda-cio.mbx.policy-inbox@army.mil
b. Dr. Gregory C. Smoots, Chief, Standards and Compliance, at
gregory.c.smoots.civ@army.mil.
Encls LEONEL T. GARCIGA
Chief Information Officer
DISTRIBUTION: (see next page)
2
SAIS-ADS (25-1rrrr)
SUBJECT: Chief Information Officer, Army Information Technology (IT) Standards and
Compliance Policy
DISTRIBUTION:
Principal Officials of Headquarters, Department of the Army
Commander
U.S. Army Forces Command
U.S. Army Training and Doctrine Command
U.S. Army Materiel Command
U.S. Army Futures Command
U.S. Army Pacific
U.S. Army Europe and Africa
U.S. Army Central
U.S. Army North
U.S. Army South
U.S. Army Special Operations Command
Military Surface Deployment and Distribution Command
U.S. Army Space and Missile Defense Command/Army Strategic Command
U.S. Army Cyber Command
U.S. Army Medical Command
U.S. Army Intelligence and Security Command
U.S. Army Corps of Engineers
U.S. Army Military District of Washington
U.S. Army Test and Evaluation Command
U.S. Army Human Resources Command
U.S. Army Corrections Command
U.S. Army Recruiting Command
Superintendent, U.S. Military Academy
Commandant, U.S. Army War College
Director, U.S. Army Civilian Human Resources Agency
Executive Director, Military Postal Service Agency
Director, U.S. Army Criminal Investigation Division
Director, Civilian Protection Center of Excellence
Director, U.S. Army Joint Counter-Small Unmanned Aircraft Systems Office
Superintendent, Arlington National Cemetery
Director, U.S. Army Acquisition Support Center
CF:
Principal Cyber Advisor
Director of Enterprise Management
Director, Office of Analytics Integration
Commander, Eighth Army
3
REFERENCES
a. Armed Forces, 10 U.S.C., Sections 2222, 2223, and 2224 (2016).
b. DoDI 8310.01 (Information Technology Standards in the DoD).
c. DoDD 5144.02 (DoD Chief Information Officer (DoD CIO)).
d. CIO memorandum (U.S. Army Chief Information Officer Standardization of Clinger-
Cohen Act Compliance Guidance), 01 December 2023.
e. Clinger-Cohen Act 40 U.S.C., Subtitle III, Section 11315 (1996).
f. AR 25-1 (Army Information Technology).
g. DA Pam 25-1-1 (Army Information Technology Implementation Instructions)
h. Executive Order 12333 (United States Intelligence Activities), as amended.
i. Executive Order 13231 (Critical Infrastructure in the Information Age), as amended.
j. DoDI 5000.82 (Requirements for the Acquisition of Digital Capabilities).
k. DoDI 8330.01 (Interoperability of Information Technology, Including National
Security Systems).
l. DoDI 4120.24 (Defense Standardization Program).
m. DoDI 5000.75 (Business Systems Requirements and Acquisition).
n. DoDI 8320.07 (Implementing the Sharing of Data, Information, and Information
Technology (IT) Services in the Department of Defense).
o. DoD JESC (Standard Operating Process (SOP)), 21 December 2022.
p. Secretary of the Army (Army Digital Transformation Strategy), 12 October 2021.
Enclosure 1
WAIVERS To Army IT STANDARDS POLICY. ICW OSD, Army CIO may approve, in
coordination with the DoD CIO, waivers to use other than mandated or emerging
standards for acquisition programs where the Component head is the MDA.
DoD IT Standard Compliance Waiver Request for DoD CIO Approval
System Name: System
Acronym:
System DITPR ID:
Requesting Organization:
Organizational POC Name, Phone, and Email:
Program Manager’s Name, Phone, and Email:
IT Standard Identifier for this waiver request:
(E.g., IEEE 802.10b)
IT Standard Title for this waiver request:
(E.g., Secure Data Exchange, 1992)
What is the rationale for using this IT standard that is retired or not registered in the DISR?
What are the risks or operational limitations due to implementing this IT standard that is
retired or not registered in the DISR?
How will these risks or operational limitations be mitigated?
What are the risks or operational impacts if the waiver request is denied?
What is the Plan of Action and Milestones for future implementation of an applicable IT
standard that is registered in the DISR as mandated or emerging?
Requestor Digital Signature:
DoD CIO Decision and signature:
Approved; Approved with Conditions; or Disapproved: ______________________
Comments/Conditions:
DoD CIO E-Signature:
JESC Waiver Identifier (assigned by the DoD JESC Secretariat):
Enclosure 2 

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MILPER Number: 24-143 Amendment to Fiscal Year 2024 (FY24) Regular Army (RA) Medical Service (MS) Corps Medical Functional Area (MFA) 70 (Administrative Health Services) and 67J (Aeromedical Evacuation) Area of Concentration (AOC) Designation Panel

1.  This message will expire 31 March 2025.


2.  This message amends MILPER message 24-101

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-143

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MILPER Number: 24-142 FY26 Colonel (COL) Finance and Comptroller (FC) Key Designated Billet (KDB) Selection Panel

1.  This message will expire NLT 31 December 2024.

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-142

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MILPER Number: 24-141 AGR Officer Promotion Sequence Numbers for May 2024

1. This message will expire not later than (NLT) 19 Apr 25.


2. This message announces the promotion sequence numbers for May 2024. S-1’s will review current promotion lists and sequence numbers to determine individuals eligible for promotion in May. If the S-1 identifies an officer who is not eligible for promotion (e.g., flagged or separated) but received a promotion order, contact HRC officer promotions list management. Likewise, if the S-1 identifies an officer who is eligible and did not receive an order.

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-141

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MILPER Number: 24-140 AC Officer Promotion Sequence Numbers for May 2024

1. This message will expire not later than (NLT) 19 Apr 24. 


2. This message announces the promotion sequence numbers for May 2024. 
S-1’s will review current promotion lists and sequence numbers to determine individuals eligible for promotion in May. If the S-1 identifies an officer who is not eligible for promotion (e.g., flagged or separated) but received a promotion order, contact HRC officer promotions list management. Likewise, if the S-1 identifies an officer who is eligible and did not receive an order.

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-140

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MILPER Number: 24-139 Fiscal Year 2026 (FY26) Colonel (COL) and Lieutenant Colonel (LTC) Army Medical Department (AMEDD) Centralized Selection List (CSL) Command/Key Billet Board Announcement

1.  This message will expire no later than (NLT) 3 April 2025.


2.  Army medical department COLs and promotable LTCs are being considered for COL CSL and LTCs and promotable majors (MAJ/P) are being considered for LTC CSL positions in FY26. 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-139

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MILPER Number: 24-138 Fiscal Year 2024 (FY24) Active Component (AC) Army Medical Department (AMEDD) Senior Service College (SSC) Selection Board Zone Message

1.  This MILPER message expires NLT 15 April 2025.


2.  This message announces the eligibility criteria and administrative instructions for the FY24 AC AMEDD SSC selection board.

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-138

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MILPER Number: 24-137 Fiscal Year 2024 (FY24) Active Component (AC) Army Medical Department (AMEDD) Intermediate Level Education (ILE) Selection Board Zone Message

1.  This MILPER message expires no later than (NLT) 19 April 2025.


2.  This message announces the eligibility criteria and administrative instructions for the FY24 AC AMEDD ILE selection board.

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-137

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MILPER Number: 24-136 Release of the Fiscal Year 2024 (FY24) Active Component (AC), Lieutenant Colonel (LTC), Army Nurse Corps (AN), Medical Service Corps (MS), Army Medical Specialist Corps (SP) and Veterinary Corps (VC), Promotion Selection Boards (PSB)

This message announces the release of the results for the FY24 Active Component (AC), Lieutenant Colonel (LTC), Army Nurse Corps (AN), Medical Service Corps (MS), Army Medical Specialist Corps (SP), and Veterinary Corps (VC), Promotion Selection Boards (PSB).

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-136

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MILPER Number: 24-135 Amendment to Participant Instructions for the Fiscal Year 2024 (FY24) Active Component (AC), Senior Service College (SSC), Operations (OPS), Operations Support (OS), Force Sustainment (FS), and Information Dominance (ID) Board Zone Message

This message amends MILPER Message 24-105

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-135

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MILPER Number: 24-134 Implementation of Personnel Development Skill Identifiers (PDSI) for personnel certified in Cyber Work roles

This message is to announce the implementation of personnel developmental skill identifiers (PDSI) for officer, warrant officer, and enlisted servicemembers certified in specific cyber work roles at the basic, senior, and master level. The intent is to track personnel certified to perform cyber work roles throughout the Army, regardless of MOS/AOC.

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-134

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MILPER Number: 24-133 Release of the Fiscal Year 2024 (FY24) Active Component (AC), Colonel (COL), Medical Corps (MC) and Dental Corps (DC), Promotion Selection Boards (PSB)

This message announces the release of the results for the FY24 Active Component (AC), Colonel (COL), Medical Corps (MC), and Dental Corps (DC), Promotion Selection Boards (PSB).

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-133

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MILPER Number: 24-132 Release of the Fiscal Year 2024 (FY24) Active Component (AC), Lieutenant Colonel (LTC), Medical Corps (MC), and Dental Corps (DC), Promotion Selection Boards (PSB)

This message announces the release of the results for the FY24 Active Component (AC), Lieutenant Colonel (LTC), Medical Corps (MC), and Dental Corps (DC), Promotion Selection Boards (PSB).

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-132

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MILPER Number: 24-131 FY24, Distribution Cycle 25-01 Aviation and Medical Service Corps CPT Instructor Pilot Program Assignment Opportunities

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-131

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MILPER Number: 24-130 Release of the Fiscal Year 2024 (FY24), Active Component (AC), Colonel Army Competitive Category (ACC), Promotion Selection Boards (PSB)

This message announces the release of the results for the FY24 Active Component (AC), Colonel (COL), Operations (OPS), Operations Support (OS), Force Sustainment (FS), and Information Dominance (ID), Promotion Selection Boards (PSB).

 

https://www.hrc.army.mil/Milper/24-130

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ALARACT 021/2024 – IMPLEMENTATION INSTRUCTIONS FOR DA FORM 7768 (COMMAND SUPPLY DISCIPLINE PROGRAM EVALUATION REPORT)

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40715-ALARACT_0212024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 020/2024 – ACTIVE DUTY FOR OPERATIONAL SUPPORT ACTIVE COMPONENT FISCAL YEAR 2025 COMMAND REQUIREMENTS SUBMISSION

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_c/ARN40675-ALARACT_0202024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 019/2024 – FISCAL YEAR 2024 U.S. ARMY CONVENTIONAL FORCE AVIATION BONUS PROGRAM TO SUPPORT CRITICAL SKILLS RETENTION

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40674-ALARACT_0192024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 018\2024 – UPDATE TO SPECTRUM SUPPORTABILITY RISK ASSESSMENT PROCESS FOR ALL ACQUISITION PROCESSES INCLUDING MIDDLE TIER ACQUISITION PATHWAY

(U) PURPOSE. THIS MESSAGE IS TO NOTIFY AND CLARIFY TO THE FORCE
THAT A SPECTRUM SUPPORTABILITY RISK ASSESSMENT (SSRA) IS REQUIRED
FOR ALL SPECTRUM DEPENDENT SYSTEMS REGARDLESS OF ARMY
ACQUISITION METHOD USED. ARMY EMS-DEPENDENT SYSTEMS ACQUISITION
AUTHORITIES ARE ENCOURAGED TO INITIATE A SSRA AS EARLY AS PRACTICAL
IN THE ACQUISITION PROCESS. ADDITIONALLY, ARMY EMS-DEPENDENT
SYSTEMS ACQUISITION AUTHORITIES WILL INCREASE THE LEVEL OF DETAIL
OF A SSRA AS THE ACQUISITION PROGRAM MATURES.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40584-ALARACT_0182024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 017/2024 – UTILIZATION OF THE ARMY RETIREE RECALL PROGRAM

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40510-ALARACT_0172024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 016/2024 – NOTIFICATION OF CHANGEOVER FROM ARMY LEARNING MANAGEMENT SYSTEM 4.0 TO ARMY TRAINING INFORMATION SYSTEM-LEARNING

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40469-ALARACT_0162024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 015/2024 – ANTITERRORISM QUARTERLY THEME – ANTITERRORISM MEASURES FOR OPERATIONAL FORCES (3RD QUARTER/FISCAL YEAR 2024 (3Q/FY24))

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_b/ARN40465-ALARACT_0152024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 009/2024 - SGM LARRY L. STRICKLAND EDUCATIONAL LEADERSHIP AWARD FOR CALENDAR YEAR 2024

(U) PURPOSE. THE LARRY L. STRICKLAND EDUCATIONAL LEADERSHIP AWARD
(SELA) IS A NON–FEDERAL AWARD OF THE ASSOCIATION OF THE UNITED STATES
ARMY (AUSA). THIS AWARD HONORS THE MEMORY OF SERGEANT MAJOR (SGM)
LARRY L. STRICKLAND (FORMER DEPUTY CHIEF OF STAFF FOR ARMY PERSONNEL
SGM); A VICTIM OF THE SEPTEMBER 11TH TERRORIST ATTACK ON THE PENTAGON,
HE REPRESENTS ALL SOLDIERS AND CIVILIANS LOST IN THE GLOBAL WAR ON
TERRORISM. SGM STRICKLAND WAS AN OUTSTANDING SOLDIER WHO CARED
DEEPLY ABOUT MENTORING MEMBERS OF THE ENLISTED FORCE AND BELIEVED “IF
YOU EDUCATE THE NONCOMMISSIONED OFFICER (NCO), YOU EDUCATE THE
SOLDIERS THEY LEAD." THE SELA IS AWARDED ON AN ANNUAL BASIS TO AN NCO
WHO EXEMPLIFIES THE ARMY'S VISION AND MOBILIZES OTHERS IN SHAPING OUR
FUTURE LEADERS WHILE PRACTICING EXCELLENT STEWARDSHIP OF THE NATION'S
MOST PRECIOUS RESOURCE.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40351-ALARACT_0092024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 008/2024 – REINFORCE ARMY LINK 16 SPECTRUM ACCESS COORDINATION REQUIREMENTS INCLUDING ONLY THE USE OF CERTIFIED SYSTEMS

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40349-ALARACT_0082024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 007/2024 - 2024 THE BEST REDLEG COMPETITION - BEST HOWITZER, FIRE DIRECTION CENTER, AND FIRE SUPPORT TEAM SECTION COMPETITION

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40348-ALARACT_0072024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 006/2024 - REQUESTING NOMINATIONS FOR THE SURGEON GENERAL’S ANNUAL PHYSICIAN ASSISTANT RECOGNITION AWARD FOR CALENDAR YEAR 2023

(U) MISSION. NO LATER THAN 26 APRIL 2024, UNITS HAVING PAS ASSIGNED
ON A FULL-TIME BASIS WILL NOMINATE ARMY ACTIVE DUTY AND RESERVE
COMPONENT PAS FOR TSG-PARA FOR CY 2023. THE 20TH ARMY MEDICAL
SPECIALIST (SP) CORPS CHIEF WILL CONVENE A SELECTION BOARD OF
SENIOR SP CORPS PAS WHO WILL MAKE AN ORDER OF MERIT LIST (OML)
RECOMMENDATION FROM 06–17 MAY 2024. THE SP CORPS CHIEF WILL SEND
AN ENDORSED SELECTEE’S NAME AND THE OML TO THE SURGEON GENERAL
FOR DECISION/APPROVAL NO LATER THAN 3 JUNE 2024.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40298-ALARACT_0062024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 005/2024 – POLICY GUIDANCE FOR TEMPORARY CHANGE OF STATION

(U) PURPOSE. TO ENSURE WIDEST DISSEMINATION AND IMPLEMENTATION
OF GUIDANCE THAT PROHIBITS USE OF TEMPORARY CHANGE OF STATION
(TCS) ORDERS FOR SOLDIERS PURSUANT TO REFERENCES 1.A, 1.B, AND 1.C.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40239-ALARACT_0052024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 004/2024 – PUBLICATION OF ARMY REGULATION 710-4, PROPERTY ACCOUNTABILITY

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40213-ALARACT_0042024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 003/2024 – ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE FISCAL YEAR 2022 AND 2023 MAJOR GENERAL GREENE INNOVATION AWARD WINNERS

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40169-ALARACT_0032024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 001/2024 - FY 2023 CPT JOHN R. TEAL LEADERSHIP AWARD

(U) MISSION. NO LATER THAN (NLT) 1 APRIL 2024, ACTIVE COMPONENT (AC),
UNITED STATES ARMY RESERVE (USAR), AND ARMY NATIONAL GUARD (ARNG)
UNITS WILL NOMINATE OFFICERS, NCOS, AND DA CIVILIANS IN A MEDICAL
OPERATIONS BILLET FOR THE FY 2023 CPT JOHN R. TEAL LEADERSHIP
AWARD. FROM 10 JUNE 2024 TO 28 JUNE 2024, THE 70H CONSULTANT WILL
CONVENE A SELECTION BOARD OF SENIOR 70H MEDICAL SERVICE CORPS
OFFICERS, NCOS, AND CIVILIAN MEDICAL PROFESSIONALS TO SELECT THE
AWARD RECIPIENTS AND WILL NOTIFY AWARDEES NLT 1 AUGUST 2024.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40031-ALARACT_0012024-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 104/2023 – WATER DISTRIBUTION AND WASTE WATER MANAGEMENT SYSTEM LINE ITEM NUMBER CONVERSION

(U) PURPOSE. THIS MESSAGE NOTIFIES UNITS OF THE PROCESS TO SELF-
CONVERT ALL WDWWMS AND REQUIRED PROPERTY BOOK ACTIONS
SUPPORTING THE CONVERSION.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN40006-ALARACT_1042023-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 102/2023 - NOMINATIONS FOR THE CALENDAR YEAR 2023 DEPARTMENT OF THE ARMY, DEPUTY CHIEF OF STAFF (LOGISTICS), G-4, LIEUTENANT GENERAL ARTHUR J. GREGG LEADERSHIP AWARD

(U) PURPOSE. THIS MESSAGE PROVIDES GUIDANCE FROM THE OFFICE OF
THE DEPUTY CHIEF OF STAFF (DCS), G-4 IN REFERENCE TO THE LIEUTENANT
GENERAL ARTHUR J. GREGG LEADERSHIP AWARD.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN39889-ALARACT_1022023-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 100/2023 – CALL FOR NOMINATIONS FOR THE CALENDAR YEAR 2023 U.S. ARMY AWARD FOR PETROLEUM EXCELLENCE

(U) PURPOSE. THIS MESSAGE PROVIDES GUIDANCE FROM THE U.S. ARMY
PETROLEUM CENTER (USAPC) IN REFERENCE TO NOMINATIONS FOR THE
CALENDAR YEAR 2023 U.S. ARMY AWARD FOR PETROLEUM EXCELLENCE.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN39869-ALARACT_1002023-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 099/2023 – FISCAL YEAR 2023 CALL FOR NOMINATIONS FOR THE SECRETARY OF THE ARMY AWARDS FOR IMPROVING PUBLICATIONS

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ALARACT 098/2023 – PERSONNEL ACCOUNTING FOR TELEWORKING SOLDIERS

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN39859-ALARACT_0982023-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 097/2023–CALL FOR PARTICIPATION ANNOUNCEMENT FOR THE SERGEANT MAJOR JOHN C. MARIGLIANO REVERSE OSMOSIS WATER PURIFICATION UNIT COMPETITION FISCAL YEAR 2024

(U) PURPOSE. TO INFORM COMMANDERS OF THE OPPORTUNITY TO HAVE A
WATER PURIFICATION TEAM TO SUBMIT A PACKET FOR CONSIDERATION TO
COMPETE IN THE FISCAL YEAR (FY) 2024 REVERSE OSMOSIS WATER
PURIFICATION UNIT (ROWPU) RODEO COMPETITION. U.S. ARMY FORCES
COMMAND (FORSCOM) AND U.S. ARMY RESERVE COMMAND HAVE
ESTABLISHED A UNIT LEVEL TRAINING FACILITY AT FORT STORY, VIRGINIA
(VA), INTEGRATING A TOTAL ARMY LIQUID LOGISTICS SUSTAINMENT
READINESS APPROACH TO INCLUDE THE ACTIVE ARMY, U.S. ARMY RESERVE,
ARMY NATIONAL GUARD, AND OTHER JOINT FORCES. THE COMPETITION WILL
BE HELD AT FORT STORY, VA.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN39846-ALARACT_0972023-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 096/2023 - IMPLEMENTING GUIDANCE FOR IDENTIFICATION CARDS FOR MEMBERS OF THE UNIFORMED SERVICES, THEIR FAMILY MEMBERS, AND OTHER ELIGIBLE PERSONNEL

(U) PURPOSE. TO ANNOUNCE THE WITHDRAWAL AND INACTIVATION OF AR
600–8–14 FROM AIR FORCE INSTRUCTION 36–3026 AND TO REITERATE THE
UTILIZATION OF ESTABLISHED GUIDANCE IN ACCORDANCE WITH
REFERENCES 1.A.-1.E.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN39799-ALARACT_0962023-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT 095/2023 – ADMINISTRATIVE ACTIONS, ROLES, AND RESPONSIBILITIES FOR PATIENT MOVEMENT

(U) PURPOSE. THE PURPOSE OF THIS MESSAGE IS TO PROVIDE
CLARIFICATION ON COMMAND, CONTROL, AND ADMINISTRATIVE ROLES,
RESPONSIBILITIES, AND PROCEDURES FOR RESERVE COMPONENT SOLDIERS
DURING PATIENT MOVEMENT.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN39794-ALARACT_0952023-000-WEB-1.pdf

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ALARACT XXX/2023 - NOMINATIONS FOR SELECTION TO ATTEND THE 2024 ARMY MEDICAL DEPARTMENT IRON MAJORS WEEK

(U) PURPOSE. THE ARMY MEDICAL DEPARTMENT (AMEDD) IRON MAJORS
WEEK (IMW) BEGINS WITH A NOMINATION AND SELECTION PROCESS TO
IDENTIFY OUTSTANDING ARMY MEDICAL DEPARTMENT ACTIVE AND RESERVE
COMPONENT MAJORS AND CAPTAINS PROMOTABLE, AS WELL AS
OUTSTANDING CIVILIAN CORPS LEADERS IN THE GRADES OF GS–12/13 OR
EQUIVALENT WHO HAVE PERFORMED EXCEPTIONALLY. IRON MAJORS MUST
HAVE DISPLAYED OUTSTANDING LEADERSHIP, THE ABILITY TO MENTOR
JUNIOR OFFICERS AND LEADERS, AND CONSISTENTLY DEMONSTRATED THE
SKILLS, ATTRIBUTES, AND POTENTIAL NEEDED TO SHAPE THE FUTURE
GROWTH AND INITIATIVES OF ARMY MEDICINE. THIS MESSAGE DELINEATES
THE NOMINATION PROCEDURE AND SELECTION CRITERIA FOR THE 2024
AMEDD IMW.

 

https://armypubs.army.mil/epubs/DR_pubs/DR_a/ARN39721-ALARACT_0932023-000-WEB-1.pdf

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